IBPS SO IT Officer Questions with answers
IBPS SO IT Officer Questions with answers
IT officer Questions
IT officer Previous Years Questions
1. The UML designation for a public class member is
(1) the symbol @
(2) the symbol #
(3) the minus symbol (-)
(4) the plus symbol (+)
(5) the word public
Answer- (4)
2. A……………is an acyclic diagraph, which has only node with
in-degree 0, and other nodes have indegree 1.
(1) Dis-joint tree
(2) Direction oriented tree
(3) directed tree
(4) Diagonalised tree
(5) Undirected tree
Answer (3) A directed tree is an acyclic digraph, which has
only one node with indegree 0, and
others nodes have indegree 1.
3. Every host computer on the internet has a(n)
(1) similar IP address
(2) unique 10-digit number
(3) common name and number
(4) unique IP address
(5) unique 15-digit number
Answer- (4) An IP address is an identifier for a computer on
a network. Thus, every computer on the internet have a unique IP address.
4. Built-in functions provided by SQL are?
(1) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, NAME
(2) MIN, MAX, MULT, DIV, NAME
(3) SUM, AVG, MULT, DIV, MIN
(4) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX , MULT
(5) COUNT, SUM, AVT, MAX, MIN
Answer- (5) COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX and MIN are the built-in
functions provided by SQL. DIV and MULT are not available in SQL.
5. Which of the following is true regarding Common Gateway
Interface (CGI)?
(1) An interface that accepts and returns data that may be
written in SQL.
(2) A small program that excutes within other application
and is stored on the server.
(3) A small program that excutes within other application
and is stored on the client.
(4) A small program that executes within other application
and is stored on the client or the server.
(5) An interface that accepts and returns data that may be
written in any language that produces executable file.
Answer (5) Common Gatway Interface (CGI) is a specification
for transferring information between a www server and a CGI program.
A CGI program is any program designed to accept and return
data that conforms to the CGI specification.
The program could be written in any programming language
including, C, Perl, JAVA or Visual Basic.
6. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for
matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?
(1) 0.0.0.0
(2) 0.0.0.255
(3) 0.0.0.240
(4) 0.0.0.31
(5) 0.0.15.0
Answer (2) 0.0.0.255 matches all the packets that have the
same first three octets.
This is useful when you want to match a subnet in which the
subnet part comprises of the first three octets.
7. What is the full form of DLCI?
(1) Data Link Circuit Identifier
(2) Data Link Connection Interrupt
(3) Data Link Connection Indicator
(4) Data Link Circuit Indicator
(5) Data Link Connection Identifier
Answer (5) The full form of DLCI Data Link Connection
Identifier.
A number of a private or switched virtual circuit in a frame
relay network that tells the Frame Relay how to route the data.
The DLCI field identifies which logical circuit the data
travels over.
8. Which of the following is used to create and delete views
and relations within tables?
(1) SQL Data Identification Language
(2) SQL Data Identification and Manipulation Languages
(3) SQL Data Relational Language
(4) SQL Data Definition Language
(5) SQL Data Manipulation Language
Answer (4) Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to define
the datatbase structure or schema. Some of them are CREATE, DROP, ALTER etc.
9. What is the result of a SQL SELECT statement called?
(1) report
(2) file
(3) page
(4) table
(5) form
answer
(4) select uses table .
10. Which of the following is true for a CASE SQL statement?
(1) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a data definition
in SQL or establish a loop in SQL
(2) CASE SQL statement a way to establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in
SQL
(3) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a loop in SQL
(4) CASE SQL statement a way to establish a data definition
in SQL
(5) Establish a loop in SQL and establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in
SQL
Answer (2)
11. ‘TELNET’ is
(1) running complex programs by logging on to supercomputers
belonging to other countries
(2) a telephone call made by the help of Internet
(3) a software to perfect viral attack
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Answer-1
12. Which one of the following computer language is not the
procedure-oriented language?
(1) C-language
(2) FORTRAN
(3) COBOL
(4) Simula
(5) None of these
Answer-2
13. Which one of the following internet protocol version is
the most deployed internet layer protocol?
(1) IPv2
(2) IPv4
(3) IPv6
(4) IPv8
(5) None of these
Answer-2
14. Which one of the following malware is used in the
Internet Relay chart channel or other chart system to coordinate the activity
of many infected computer?
(1) Keyloggers
(2) Adwares
(3) Dialers
(4) Botnets
(5) None of these
Answer-4
15. Which one of the following rebooting commonly occurs
when the system of computer is crashed?
(1) Soft rebooting
(2) Cold rebooting
(3) Hard rebooting
(4) Random rebooting
(5) None of the above
Answer-4
16. Which one of the following computers is the world’s
first commercial computer?
(1) Ferranti Mar-I
(2) Mark-I Star
(3) UNIVAC-I
(4) IBM-704
(5) None of these
Answer-3
17. The advantage of a LAN is
(1) sharing peripherals
(2) backing up your data
(3) saving all your data
(4) accessing the web
(5) automatic printing of data
Answer-1
18. A tree like structure of records in a database
(1) hierarchical database structure
(2) relational database structure
(3) multidimensional database structure
(4) sequential database access
(5) None of the above
Answer-1
19. The memory address of the first element of an array is
called
(1) floor address
(2) foundation address
(3) first address
(4) base address
(5) None of these
Answer-4
20. The PHP Syntax is most similar to
(1) PERL and C
(2) Java script
(3) VB script
(4) Visual Basic
(5) None of these
21. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?
(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 2550.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
22. What is loopback address?
(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 127.0.0.0 (A)
127.0.0.1
23. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite
computers is called a
(A) Bus network
(B) Ring network
(C) Star network
(D) None of these
(C) Star network
24. A networking device that receives a signal on an
electromagnetic or an optical transmission medium, amplifies the signal,and
then retransmits it along the medium is called
(A) Router
(B) Hub
(C) transmitter
(D) Repeater
(D) Repeater
25. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?
(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0
(B) 255.0.0.0
26. UTP stands for
(A) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(B) Unshielded Twisted Port
(C) Uniformly Twisted Pair
(D) None
(A) Unshielded Twisted Pair
27. Which of the following organization defines standards
for modems?
(A) IEEE
(B) CCITT
(C) BELL
(D) None
(B) CCITT (Consultative Committee for International
Telephony
and Telegraphy)The CCITT, now known as the ITU-T (for
Telecommunication Standardization Sector of the International
Telecommunications Union), is the primary international body for
fostering cooperative standards for telecommunications
equipment and systems.
28. Which topology requires a hub?
(A) Ring
(B) Star
(C) Bus
(D) None
(B) Star
29. Which OSI layer divides a file into segments that are an
efficient size
for routing?
(A) Transport Layer
(B) Network Layer
(C) Data link Layer
(D) None
(A) Transport Layer
30. FDDI stands for
(A) Fiber Data Distribution Interface
(B) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
(C) Fixed Data Distribution Interface
(D) None
(B) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
31. Which layer is the closest to transmission medium?
(A) Transport layer
(B) Physical layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (B) Physical layer
32. Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?
(A) TCP/IP
(B) Spanning Tree Protocol
(C) SMTP
(D) None
Ans - (B) Spanning Tree Protocol
33. What kind of scheme is the http protocol?
(A) get/put
(B) request/response
(C) store/forward
(D) queuing
Ans - (B) request/respons
34. Which layer of OSI determines the interface of the
system with the user?
(A) Session layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (B) Application layer
35. Which of the following is an example of client-server
model?
(A) FTP
(B) DNS
(C) TELNET
(D) All of the above
Ans - (D) All of the above
36. At which layer TCP/IP defines two protocols:
Transmission Control Protocol(TCP) and User Datagram Protocol(UDP)?
(A) Transport layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Ans - (A) Transport layer
37. Which of the following uses the greatest number of
layers in the OSI model?
(A) Bridge
(B) Repeater
(C) Router
(D) Gateway
Ans - (D) Gateway
38. Which Protocol use link state routing?
(A) OSPF
(B) IGRP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Ans - (A) Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Link-state routing
protocols, such as OSPF and IS-IS, create a topology of the network and place
themselves at the root of the tree.Link-state protocols implement an algorithm
called the shortest path first (SPF, also known as Dijkstra's Algorithm) to
determine the path to a remote destination.
39. Which PPP Protocol provides authentication and dynamic
addressing?
(A) LCP
(B) NCP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Ans - (A) Link Control Protocol (LCP) PPP - Point-to-Point
Protocol
40. Which of the following layer is the network support
layer?
(A) Physical layer
(B) Data link layer
(C) Network layer
(D) All of the above
Ans - (D) All of the above
Q41. Ethernet uses how many bit/byte physical address, that
is imprinted on the network interface card?
a) 64 bit
b) 64 byte
c) 6 bit
d) 6 byte
e) 32 bit
Solution:
Ethernet uses a 6 -byte (48-bit) physical address that is
imprinted on the network interface card (NIC). The physical address also known
as the link address is the address of a node physical address, also known as
the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. It is
included in the frame used by the data link layer.
Q42. Which type of security attack occurs, when a malicious
actor inserts himself as a relay/proxy into a communication session between
people or systems?
a) Compromised key attack
b) Sniffer Attack
c) Man-in-the-Middle attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
e) Eavesdropping
Solution:
A man-in-the-middle attack is a type of cyberattack where a
malicious actor inserts him/herself into a conversation between two parties,
impersonates both parties and gains access to information that the two parties
were trying to send to each other. A man-in-the-middle attack allows a
malicious actor to intercept, send and receive data meant for someone else, or
not meant to be sent at all, without either outside party knowing until it is
too late.
Q43. Which protocols is used to monitor network devices such
as hubs, switches, and routes?
SMTP
RIP
SNMP
OSPF
HTTP
Solution:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a popular
protocol for network management. It is used for collecting information from,
and configuring, network devices, such as servers, printers, hubs, switches,
and routers on an Internet Protocol (IP) network.
Q44. Which of the following is not the major function of
PKI?
Confidentiality
Accessibility
Authentication
Integrity
Non-Repudiation
Solution:
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware,
software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store,
distribute, and revoke Digital Certificates. A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
enables users of a basically unsecure public network such as the Internet to
securely and privately exchange data using a public and a private cryptographic
key pair that is obtained and shared through a trusted authority. There are 4
major function of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI): Confidentiality,
Authentication, Integrity, Non-Repudiation.
Q45. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only
254 host addresses per network ID?
A Class
B Class
C Class
D Class
E Class
Solution:
Class C network address only has 8 bits for defining hosts..
Q46. PPP used in which layer of network reference model?
Physical layer
Data link layer
Network layer
Application layer
Presentation layer
Solution:
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a data link layer (layer 2)
communications protocol used to establish a direct connection between two
nodes. It connects two routers directly without any host or any other
networking device in between. It can provide connection authentication
transmission encryption and compression.
Q47. What is SSH?
Routing Protocol
Connection mechanism
Network Model
Cryptographic
Protocol
Connector
Solution:
SSH (Secure Shell) is cryptographic a protocol which define
how to connect securely over a network. SSH (Secure Shell) protocol provides
the three main ideas of security authentication, confidentiality (via
encryption) and integrity of data transfer over a network. SSH supports
Authentication to reliably determine the identity of the connecting computer,
encryption to scramble data so that only the intended recipient only can read
it and Integrity to guarantees the data sent over the network is not changed by
a third party.
Q48. Which of the following is the process of splitting a
message into multiple packets at transport layer?
Fragmentation
Segmentation
Synchronization
Defragmentation
Framing
Solution:
packet segmentation is the process of dividing a data packet
into smaller units for transmission over the network.
Q49. An accountant office has four employees. They have four
computers and two printers. What kind of network would you suggest they install?
Client server network
Peer-to peer network
Intranet
MAN
None of the above
Solution:
A peer-to-peer (P2P) network is group of computers, each of
which acts as a node for sharing files within the group. Instead of having a
central server to act as a shared drive, each computer acts as the server for
the files stored upon it.
Q50. End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host
in which layer?
Network layer
Session layer
Data link layer
Transport layer
Presentation layer
Solution:
The transport layer is the layer in the open system
interconnection (OSI) model responsible for end-to-end communication over a
network. It provides logical communication between application processes
running on different hosts within a layered architecture of protocols and other
network components. The transport layer is also responsible for the management
of error correction, providing quality and reliability to the end user. This
layer enables the host to send and receive error corrected data, packets or
messages over a network and is the network component that allows multiplexing.
Q51. IP address 128.167.152.2 is belongs to which class?
A
B
C
D
None
Solution:
Range of Class B address is 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
Q52. An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a
“Destination Unreachable” message. Which protocol is responsible for that
message?
RARP
RUDP
ICMP
SNMP
ARP
Solution:
The ICMP destination unreachable message is generated by a
router (which is reachable) to inform the source host that the destination
unicast address is unreachable.
Q53. Which type of network consists set of switches
connected by physical links?
Circuit Switched
Network
Datagram Network
Virtual Circuit
Network
All of these
None of these
Solution:
In Circuit-switched networks, a physical path is dedicated
to a single connection between two end-points in the network for the duration
of the connection.
Q54. Which of the following layer oversees both error
control & flow control at the source to destination level?
Physical
Data link
Transport
Network
None of these
Solution:
The transport layer in a network model is responsible for
process-to-process delivery of the entire message. The transport layer in a
network model, ensures that the whole message arrives intact and in order,
overseeing both error control and flow control at the source-to-destination
level.
Q55. Bridge work at which layer of OSI Model?
network layer
Data link layer
Physical layer
application layer
Transport layer
Solution:
Bridges operate at the Data-Link Layer of the OSI Model.
They can distinguish between local and remote data, so data traveling from one
workstation to another in the same segment doesn't have to cross the bridge.
Bridges operate on MAC-Layer addresses
56. ‘TELNET’ is
(1) running complex programs by logging on to supercomputers
belonging to other countries
(2) a telephone call made by the help of Internet
(3) a software to perfect viral attack
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Answer-1
57. Which one of the following computer language is not the
procedure-oriented language?
(1) C-language
(2) FORTRAN
(3) COBOL
(4) Simula
(5) None of these
Answer-2
58. Which one of the following internet protocol version is
the most deployed internet layer protocol?
(1) IPv2
(2) IPv4
(3) IPv6
(4) IPv8
(5) None of these
Answer-2
59. Which one of the following malware is used in the
Internet Relay chart channel or other chart system to coordinate the activity
of many infected computer?
(1) Keyloggers
(2) Adwares
(3) Dialers
(4) Botnets
(5) None of these
Answer-4
60. Which one of the following rebooting commonly occurs
when the system of computer is crashed?
(1) Soft rebooting
(2) Cold rebooting
(3) Hard rebooting
(4) Random rebooting
(5) None of the above
Answer-4
61. Which one of the following computers is the world’s
first commercial computer?
(1) Ferranti Mar-I
(2) Mark-I Star
(3) UNIVAC-I
(4) IBM-704
(5) None of these
Answer-6
62. The advantage of a LAN is
(1) sharing peripherals
(2) backing up your data
(3) saving all your data
(4) accessing the web
(5) automatic printing of data
Answer-1
63. A tree like structure of records in a database
(1) hierarchical database structure
(2) relational database structure
(3) multidimensional database structure
(4) sequential database access
(5) None of the above
Answer-1
64. The memory address of the first element of an array is
called
(1) floor address
(2) foundation address
(3) first address
(4) base address
(5) None of these
Answer-4
65. The PHP Syntax is most similar to
(1) PERL and C
(2) Java script
(3) VB script
(4) Visual Basic
(5) None of these
Answer-1
Q66.______ computer virus is a computer that's been infected
by a hacker and controlled under remote direction to perform criminal tasks.
Zombie
Worm
Logic Bomb
Virusa
None of these
Solution:
A zombie computer virus is a computer that's been infected
by a computer virus or compromised by a hacker. It can be controlled under
remote direction to perform criminal tasks, as well as infect other computers
with viruses.
Q67. Which of the following is a type of margin at the time
of printing and binding printouts?
Portrait
Gutter
A4
Next Page
None of these
Solution:
A gutter margin adds an extra space to the binding sides.
Thus, it ensures that the text does not hide at the time of binding or folding
papers.
Q68. Which of the following addressing mode, the operand is
available in the instruction itself.
Direct addressing
Immediate addressing
Implied addressing
Indirect addressing
None of these
Solution:
The addressing mode in which the data operand is a part of
the instruction itself is known as immediate addressing mode.
Q69. Which of the memories has the shortest access time?
Cache memory
Magnetic bubble
memory
Magnetic core memory
RAM
None of these
Solution:
Cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer
memory that provides high-speed data access to a processor and stores
frequently used computer programs, applications and data. Cache is the fastest
memory in a computer.
Q70. What is trap door?
IT is trap door in
War Games
It is a hole in
software left by designer.
It is a Trojan horse
It is a virus which
traps and locks user terminal
None of these
Solution:
Trap door is the new jargon for Backdoor Programs or
Backdoor virus in Software field. A trap door is a secret entry point into a
program that allows someone that is aware of the trap door to gain access
without going through the usual security access procedures.
Q71. Which one of the following is not a Linux distribution?
Debian
Gentoo
Kinoppix
Fedora
Slix
Solution:
The Linux open source operating system, or Linux OS, is a
freely distributable,
Cross-platform operating system based on Unix that can be
installed on PCs, laptops,
netbooks, mobile and tablet devices, video game consoles,
servers, supercomputers and more. All are Linux distribution except Slix.
Q72. Which of the following method allow you to factor out
commonality from two or more entity sets?
Specialization
Aggregation
Generalization
Inheritance
None of these
Solution:
Generalization is a process of extracting common
characteristics from two or more classes and combining them into a generalized
super class. So, it is a bottom up approach as two or more lower lever entities
are combined to form a higher level entity.
Q73. What is Dirty Bit in operating system?
Page with corrupted
data
Wrong page in the
memory
Page that is modified
after being loaded into cache memory
Page that is less
frequently accessed
None of these
Solution:
A dirty bit is a flag that indicates whether an attribute
needs to be updated. Such situations usually occur when a bit in a memory cache
or virtual memory page that has been changed by a processor but has not been
updated in the storage.
Q74. The …………… is code embedded in some legitimate program
that is set to "explode" when certain conditions are met.
Trap doors
Trojan horse
Logic Bomb
Virus
None of these
Solution:
The logic bomb is code embedded in some legitimate program that
is set to "explode" when certain condition are met.
Q75. The organization and interconnection of the various
components of a computer system is ___.
Architecture
Networks
Graphics
Cesigning
None of these
Solution:
Computer architecture is the organization and
interconnection of the various components of a computer system.
Q76. Which of the following is not a valid software
development models?
Spiral model
Circular model
Waterfall model
RAD model
None of these
Solution:
Circular model is not a valid software model.
Q77. If a relation has several candidate keys, one is chosen
arbitrarily to be the __________ key?
Primary key
Secondary key
Foreign key
Candidate key
None of these
Solution:
A candidate key is a column, or set of columns, in a table
that can uniquely identify any database record without referring to any other
data. Each table may have one or more candidate keys, but one candidate key is
unique, and it is called the primary key.
Q78. What is the file extension of compiled java program?
(.class)
(.java)
(.css)
(.html)
None of these
Solution:
(.class) is the Compiled java source code file, and (.java)
is the extension of source code of a java program.
Q79. Which of the following is an authorization command in
SQL?
Access
Allow
Grant
Revoke
None of these
Solution:
SQL GRANT is a command used to provide access or privileges
on the database objects to the users.
Q80. What is Code Red?
Word Processing
Software
Antivirus
Virus
Photo Editing
Software
None of these
Solution:
Code Red is a worm that caused possible billions of dollars
of damage in the summer of 2001. It contains the text string "Hacked by
Chinese!", which is displayed on web pages that the worm defaces. It is
also one of the few worms able to run entirely in memory, leaving no files on
the hard drive or any other permanent storage.
81. Build & Fix Model is suitable for
programming exercises of ___________
LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable
for small projects & programming exercises
of 100 or 200 lines.
82. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
83. Which one of the following models is
not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow
the sequential flow that the Waterfall
Model proposes.
84. Which is not one of the types of
prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as
Diagonal Prototype
whereas other options
have their respective
definitions.
85. Which one of the following is not
a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model
generates only a working model of a
system.
86. Which of the following statements
regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable &
unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable
for 100-200 LOC
87. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five
phases
namely:Business modeling,Data
modeling,Process modeling,Application
generation and Testing & Turnover.
88. What is the major drawback of using
RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components,
Highly specialized
& skilled
developers/designers are required
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create
an unrealistic product vision leading
a team to over or
under-develop
functionality.Also, the specialized &
skilled developers are not easily
available.
89. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
90. Which model can be selected if user
is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Q91.A banking system consist of user accounts, money
transfers, withdrawal, deposits, etc. These all represent tables or entities
that can be manipulated with SQL. What is full form of SQL?
(a)Shortcut query language
(b)Structured query language
(c)Simple query language
(d)Sorted query language
(e)None of the above
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Structured Query Language. SQL is used to communicate
with a database. According to ANSI (American National Standards Institute), it
is the standard language for relational database management systems.
Q92.A relational database consists of a collection of:
(a)Tables
(b)Fields
(c)Records
(d)Keys
(e)None of the above
Ans.(a)
Sol. A relational database is a collection of data items
organized as a set of formally-described tables from which data can be accessed
or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database
tables.
Q93.OLAP stands for:
(a)Online analytical processing
(b)Online analysis processing
(c)Online transaction processing
(d)Online aggregate processing
(e)None of the above
Ans.(a)
Sol. OLAP is an acronym for Online Analytical Processing.
OLAP performs multidimensional analysis of business data and provides the
capability for complex calculations, trend analysis, and sophisticated data
modeling.
Q94.Which one of the following is used to define the
structure of the relation ,deleting relations and relating schemas ?
(a)DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
(b)DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
(c)Query
(d)Relational Schema
(e)None of the above
Ans.(b)
Sol. Data Definition Language (DDL) is a standard for
commands that define the different structures in a database. DDL statements
create, modify, and remove database objects such as tables, indexes, and users.
Common DDL statements are CREATE, ALTER, and DROP.
Q95.Which one of the following provides the ability to query
information from the database and to insert tuples into, delete tuples from,
and modify tuples in the database ?
(a)DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
(b)DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
(c)Query
(d)Relational Schema
(e)None of the above
Ans.(a)
Sol. A data manipulation language (DML) is a family of
syntax elements similar to a computer programming language used for selecting,
inserting, deleting and updating data in a database. Performing read-only
queries of data is sometimes also considered a component of DML.
Q96.To remove a relation from an SQL database, we use the
______ command.
(a)Delete
(b)Purge
(c)Remove
(d)Drop table
(e)None of the above
Ans.(d)
Sol. Drop table deletes the whole structure of the relation
.purge removes the table which cannot be obtained again.
Q97.What term is used to refer to a specific record in your
music database; for instance; information stored about a specific album?
(a)Relation
(b)Instance
(c)Table
(d)Column
(e)None of the above
Ans.(b)
Sol. The environment of database is said to be instance. A
database instance or an ‘instance’ is made up of the background processes
needed by the database.
Q98.An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes
to form a primary key is termed a __________ .
(a)Strong entity set
(b)Variant set
(c)Weak entity set
(d)Variable set
(e)None of the above
Ans.(c)
Sol. An entity set that has a primary key is termed a strong
entity set.
Q99.Which of the following gives a logical structure of the
database graphically ?
(a)Entity-relationship diagram
(b)Entity diagram
(c)Database diagram
(d)Architectural representation
(e)None of the above
Ans.(a)
Sol. An entity relationship model, also called an
entity-relationship (ER) diagram, is a graphical representation of entities and
their relationships to each other, typically used in computing in regard to the
organization of data within databases or information systems.
Q100.A window into a portion of a database is
(a)Schema
(b)View
(c)Query
(d)Data dictionary
(e)None of the above
Ans.(b)
Sol. View is a logical portion of a database which is needed
by some users.
Q101. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
(a)Ellipse
(b)Dashed ellipse
(c)Rectangle
(d)Triangle
(e)Diamond
Ans.(d)
Q102. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute
is converted to individual attributes.
(a)First
(b)Second
(c)Third
(d)Fourth
(e)Fifth
Ans.(a)
Sol. The first normal form is used to eliminate the
duplicate information.
Q103. Tables in second normal form (2NF):
(a)Eliminate all hidden dependencies
(b)Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
(c)Have a composite key
(d)Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
(e)All of the above
Ans.(a)
Sol. The relation in second normal form is also in first
normal form and no partial dependencies on any column in primary key.
Q104. Which form has a relation that possesses data about an
individual entity:
(a)2NF
(b)3NF
(c)4NF
(d)5NF
(e)1NF
Ans.(c)
Sol. A Table is in 4NF if and only if, for every one of its
non-trivial multivalued dependencies X \twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a
superkey—that is, X is either a candidate key or a superset thereof.
Q105.Which forms are based on the concept of functional
dependency:
(a)1NF
(b)2NF
(c)3NF
(d)4NF
(e)5NF
Ans.(b)
Sol. The table is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R
is non-transitively dependent (i.e. directly dependent) on every super key of
R.
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